My response to a friend’s comment regarding European languages

My response to a friend's comment regarding European languages

7/5/2021 0:00:01

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[Our venerable professor wonders: “Are Europeans of one origin?” Then he answers: “Yes, the Caucasian race.” Then he concludes: Therefore, this should lead to the emergence of a single, dominant language in Europe.”

I say here that this assumption is wrong and the conclusion is wrong! Because we can ask in the same way and say: Are the peoples of East Asia of one origin? The answer is yes, the Asian race, but the Chinese, Korean, Japanese, Vietnamese, Cambodian, and Tibetan each have a different language! ]

My comment to you:

First: Whoever said that it is a wrong assumption, and that I am the one responding to my words.

The West says that he is of the Caucasian race and I am not, and you can read what they say, or shorten the route and look at the data of any European on the social networking sites… in the race category… Caucasian.

I did not say anything of my own, nor did I answer myself with an answer of my own…. They even say that the languages of Europe are of one origin, one ancient Indo-European language.

Second: Your measurement is correct… but your conclusion is wrong.

Because what applies to European languages also applies to Asian languages, exactly, but because my topic is related to European languages, I did not discuss Asian languages.

Because, according to logic… the Chinese language was able to impose itself and spread over a huge area estimated at approximately 9 million km2 and over more than a billion people, but it stopped at political borders and a very small area, the size of a small province in China, with a very small population, and it appeared in… That space is a different language that the Chinese do not understand, even though they are of the same race?!

Where did the Korean people next to the Chinese come from with a different language?!

Think logically… is it possible… or do ancient languages respond to modern political borders?

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[Our professor says that the European languages are not close to each other, but rather far from each other, but my answer confirms that they are natural languages that are close to each other and branch off from each other and share a large vocabulary in most of them. A large part of the Russian language’s dictionary is from Latin languages]

My comment:

An incorrect measure. It is not correct to take words of one language that are similar to words in another language as a measure of similarity and closeness, for reasons including the existence of scientific terms due to the necessity of learning science with terms produced from another language.

Also… the measure of similarity in words should not be taken based on closeness except to the first words, that is, to words that were linked to the life of the first ancient man in a necessary or necessary way, such as the words (water, sky, mountain, fire, house, plant, and the names of the parts of the human body). ).

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[The problem is that the author of the post below speaks in all fields without knowledge

I say it clearly: European languages are very natural languages and did not come from a vacuum and were not engineered by a person or a group, for many reasons

First – artificial languages, such as Esperanto, for example, are failed languages! No matter how much millions learn it and apply it to themselves, generation after generation, it remains not a real language, and even the languages that have been revived, such as Hebrew, for example, ninety percent of Israelis speak acquired Hebrew in addition to their mother tongues related to their origin. For example, my Israeli colleagues of German origin spoke German, and the Israelis are of Yemeni origin. They speak Arabic with its Yemeni dialect, and Israelis of Armenian origin speak Armenian, but in Tel Aviv, for example, they all speak Hebrew, just like the gatherings of people inside Dubai Airport. Everyone speaks English, but each person has his own natural local language.]

My comment:

Esperanto is a failed language?!

I am not talking about failure and success, I am talking about an artificial language, and I have nothing to do with success or failure. I am talking about the idea of the possibility of creating a language and making it a language of speech. The important thing is that there is someone who has created a language, and then who judges a language according to a standard of failure and success?

The Hebrew language was revived?

Whoever told you this information, do not hesitate to formulate the information. How can a language be revived? Are you laughing at us? It is difficult for you to say that Hebrew is an artificial language, and it was made a language of communication. Did you not know the story of Ezra, who made the dictionary of the Hebrew language and how he derived and compiled his dictionary?

For this reason, I spoke about Esperanto, which was derived from dictionaries, including the Hebrew dictionary, which was made by that man Ezra, in order to show you that it is easy to create a language, teach it, and make it the language of the people, like Esperanto, which some people master and interact with, and which has been adopted as an official language on the island. Artificial in the Pacific Ocean around 1965.

Then how is it possible that a 4,000-year-old language is Hebrew, and no one in the whole world spoke it except clerics, and it was the language of a religious text, and no isolated Jewish community was formed anywhere on earth that spoke the Hebrew language, until after the establishment of the Zionist entity?

Give your mind…a little thought and logic

Are Al-Yahoud of German origin?

If the Jew was of German origin, what brought him to occupy and settle a land belonging to another people? Why were Al-Yahoud who did not speak Hebrew gathered from every place on earth, after 4,000 years, to Palestine and the command was made to activate the language of their religious book and make it a language of speech?

If a Jew is of German origin and speaks German, then what is the reason for him to speak Hebrew next to it, as long as his origin is German, and as long as his origin is Yemeni and speaks Arabic with a Yemeni dialect, then what is the reason for him to speak Hebrew next to him? Then, if the Al-Yahoud are a community of one origin, then there is nothing that unites the Arabic language with German, as it is of one origin.

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[Secondly – The author of the post says that European languages are unnatural because their people do not understand each other, and this is not true. When my Spanish friends met with my Portuguese friends, they understood each other without learning each other’s languages. My Italian colleague understood each other with my Mexican colleague at the level of understanding between an Omani citizen. As a Moroccan citizen, there are difficulties, but there is a wide range of foundations, common basic words. Just as the Algerian knows that the sun is sun, the Iraqi also calls the sun sun, even though this one says, “How are you, and the other is a trap?” In Italian, “sole” means sun, in Spanish, “sol” means sun, in Italian, “comestai,” how are you, and in Spanish, “comoastas,” how are you?

My friends from Norway completely understood my friends from Sweden, even though they had not learned each other’s languages. This is why European languages are considered in the true sense to be similar dialects, just like the Arabic dialects. Just as the Alexandrian says “Jani” and the Cairene “Jani” on the local currency, and just as the Saudi says, “I preach, what do you want?” the Syrian says. He says, “If anything, what do you want?”

But in general, we understand each other, and the same is true for them in Europe.]

My comment:

A completely wrong inference. You are talking about societies that travel, communicate, and have knowledge of other languages, by virtue of travel, work, transportation, education, watching television, the Internet, etc., in addition to the European Union’s contribution to facilitating communication between countries.

And a completely wrong analogy… Do not talk to me about similarities between one linguistic faction, talk to me about similarities between different factions, because in the process of creating languages, two different but similar linguistic dictionaries can easily be produced in some way with a small substitution process, so languages appear before us that appear to be from one family. .

The similarity between the factions must be according to a scientific method, as I mentioned previously. The method is based on knowing its relationship to the first words associated with humans and not to other words, and excluding vowels.

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[The author of the post says that European languages are not real because they are strange, engineered and imposed, but I do not know where he came from with this assumption. If you observe the map of the world and the spread of the world’s peoples, you can extrapolate successive human migrations. For example, the Tibetan language is similar to Chinese and similar to Hindi at the same time because Tibet is between the two countries. Which means that humans moved from India to Tibet to form Tibetan there, and the further we move from India, the more Chinese features appear until we reach the far north-east of China, and the Chinese dialect “Dong Bi” appears, similar to and slightly different from the dialect of central China, then Korean appears, which is similar to Chinese, but with Japanese features. As we continue walking, we reach Japan, where the Chinese features diminish greatly and the Korean features remain.

This matter exists in the Middle East. For example, when we move from northern Saudi Arabia, for example, we find that the dialect of people there is similar to the dialect of the Arabs of southern Jordan. However, in Jordan, Levantine features are mixed, and as we move north, the Levantine features begin to be tinged with a little Turkish until we reach the Turkish border and find people speaking Turkish-Arabic dialects. We continued, the Arabic features disappear a little and features closer to Persian appear, and when we enter from Turkey to Iran, the Iranian begins to be tinged with Pakistani Urdu, and inside Pakistan the language seems close to Hindi.

And so, just as we move from southern Yemen to Eritrea, where the people of Eritrea in East Africa speak a southern Yemeni dialect, but when we move a little west and enter Somalia and Tanzania, a dialect of a mixture of Yemeni and African Arabic appears, so we hear what is called Swahili, and the more we enter Africa, the Arabic features disappear a little and features appear. Neighboring peoples, and the same thing applies to Europe. The Bulgarian language, for example, resembles the Russian Slavic languages and is a little similar to Turkish, but when we move to nearby Poland, the Turkish features disappear. The Slavic features continue, but mixed with German features, so the Polish language is like this. Then we enter Germany, which has features of the Germanic languages, which is the source of the Germanic languages. Therefore, we find that the neighboring country has a language similar to German, such as Dutch, and when we move up, we find Danish, which is German, very similar to Scandinavian. The same is true if we start from southern Europe. Greek is lexically similar to some extent with ancient Arabic and with Latin, just as on the island of Malta, where people speak, there is a mixture. Arabic-Latin, and Italian takes on a Latin form mixed with ancient Greek and Middle Eastern languages until we reach Spain, where the Middle Eastern Latin influence appears, with the Arabic vocabulary increasing significantly due to ancient Andalusian influences. Thus, this indicates that the path and movement of languages is an interconnected chain. If European languages were artificial in the first place, humans would not have spoken them as a mother tongue and would not have been sequential and similar in a smooth, flowing way as we progress geographically]

My comment:

There is a border separation between the Latin languages. For example, Romania is not geographically connected to Italy, and they speak one faction.

The area of influence of the Greek language is not proportional to the huge history, tournaments, invasions and wars. It is isolated in a very small peninsula, and next to it is the Albanian language, which is different from it.

Secondly… Don’t talk to me about today’s reality, because today’s reality is engineered, otherwise Eritrea would not have Arabic-speaking residents and Djibouti would speak another language next to it.

The measure of traits must be linked to the first words on earth that are associated with humans. Do not talk to me about the reality of an engineer that was drawn after the West’s conquest of the world and the work of border and linguistic engineering.

I have given you an example now of the process of numerical engineering in the way language is created, with this example in the picture, which confirms our logic and the reality of the nature of people in the land, which should not appear in this way in Europe.

n + 8 = night

See how the same geometry exists in European languages, in Latin, and in the artificial language of Esperanto, until you are certain that the process has a geometric awareness behind it.

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[Our professor says that the Hellenic languages did not influence Europe, and this is ignorance on his part. European culture is lexically based on a large proportion of Greek terms. The English word crown, for example, which is widespread in its different versions in almost all the languages of Europe, comes from Greek, and the linguistic structures are made up of suffixes and prefixes, most of which are of Greek origin.

If you learn medicine in English, you will find that you are learning. Greek Dictionary So how can you deny that the languages of Europe are not related to the Greek language?]

My comment:

The English language is lexically based on a large proportion of Russian language terms, because most space science terms are Russian.

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[Our esteemed professor wonders whether the Basque, Celt, Hungarian and Finnish people descended from the sky, but some of them are indigenous to the region, and some of them come from a culture different from the Latin culture. Basque was recently discovered to be similar to Armenian, while the Celt language is a primitive European language.

If the assumption is that European languages are a satanic plan imposed on Europeans, and if they were imposed, how do you justify the presence of strange languages in the region, such as Hungarian, Basque, Finnish, Gaelic, and Celtic? If the matter was the annihilation of languages, the engineering of an artificial language, and its imposition on the Europeans, why did the conspirators allow the existence of these strange languages in Europe?

Finally, if you live in the United Kingdom, Britain, you will understand that the English in which we communicate at airports and in universities and hear CNN and BBC news in is not similar to the English of the people of England or Scotland.

There is no conspiracy in the nature of the languages of Europe

The issue is your lack of awareness

For the concepts of engineered and natural colloquialism]

Haha, this is the fundamental question that you must ask yourself in understanding the story, and the one that you tried to evade with faulty logic.

Yes, engineered languages. Otherwise, why would Hungarian and Finnish have appeared, which are languages that do not belong to Europe?

Where did this people who live in central Europe come from, with a language completely different from the other languages of Europe?

If we say that it is an old language and another people came with a new language, but the Finns also have a language that is different from Europe as well and from Hungary as well.

Why do you not want to accept the idea that creating languages is a very easy thing, and the process of imposing manufactured languages as languages of communication is a very easy thing, and you have the Zionist entity in which people from all the rubbish of the world have been settled, carrying the same religious book that the West believes in and which is written in a language besides The rest of the other European languages in which the religious book was written, and he lives in a linguistic environment completely different from it and speaks a strange language that no one understands.

Do you not understand, do you not reflect, do you not see?

{And if We had made it a foreign Qur’an, they would have said, “If only its verses were explained in detail. Are they foreign and Arabic?” Say, “It is for those who believe a guidance and a cure.” And for those who do not believe, there is deafness in their ears, and it is upon them blindness. Those are called from a far place. (44) And indeed We gave Musa the Book, but they differed over it. And had it not been for a word that preceded from Your Allah, it would have been decided between them, and indeed they are in Doubt about him is suspicious (45)}

{We have sent it down as an Arabic Qur’an so that you may understand.}

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