2022-05-10T09:35:00-08:00
In the first part, at the end of our article, we arrived at a question that imposes itself strongly:
Why did the region’s residents always get confused about only two specific fruits?
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Reaching an answer that is close to the truth requires us to ask all possible questions and answer them in a logical and realistic manner.
The truth is that before searching for an answer to this question, we must ask an important question: Why did there also be a confusion in the English language regarding the same two fruits that contain confusion in the region?
Figs in English……………………fig
Prickly pear in English ……. figs
If there is a logical reason that explains the situation in the region, is this reason the same reason that explains the situation in the English language?!
The participation of the residents of the region with the English in the confusion makes the matter a global phenomenon, and this matter makes us believe that the matter can only be explained through two possibilities: Either the confusion occurred in accordance with an agreement in society, or the confusion did not occur in accordance with the agreement of society.
The first possibility… An old agreement in society
How can it be an agreement?
Thinking about the idea of the ancient agreement leads us to ask a question: Is language arbitrary, or is it an agreement in society to give things names?
If the language is pausal, then this does not require the spontaneity and spontaneity that characterize the pausal language to give two unlike fruits the same name, especially since the two fruits are not similar and different in shape and taste.
Also, the pausing language requires the emergence of a very old situation, and this means the emergence of an old situation common to everyone, which realistically imposes the appearance of the same name for everyone, even if it is the same name for two fruits with similar names? .
But it didn’t happen
Also, if the language was Tawqiqi and it was a coincidence that one name for two fruits appeared in it, then why did residents speaking one Tqiqi language differ in naming (plus, figs, chermos)?
– If language is an agreement in society on certain rules for naming things, then this means that there is something strong in common between the two fruits that made society give them one name according to a rule that requires the language to put the names in this way?
If this is the case, does this mean that there is one fixed rule common to all languages when it comes to naming names?
But why do languages have different nomenclature even though they have one rule?
So what is the type of rule in giving a word one name?
Also, if the matter is that there is a fixed rule, why did this rule not appear in other fruits that are very similar in shape and taste and in a clearer way than those fruits, and they were given the same name?!
The second possibility… The community did not agree on it
This possibility makes us ask a question: How can a society give a name to fruits if there is no natural agreement within the society?
Thinking about this situation makes us believe that there is one possibility, that it is an external factor from society imposing these labels on society except by trickery or force, and making society deal with those labels, which is not an agreement.
how ?
I mean, for example
It is possible that there is an external factor who introduced a new tree to a community, and because it was new, he knew it by a certain name, then after a while he introduced another new fruit and began to promote it with the same name as the first one, and thus the community was forced to name one and tried to differentiate between them by a characteristic that was not common.
If we believe in this possibility, the questions that arise are:
What is this external factor, and what is the importance of him doing this work and the confusion and what will he benefit from, and why these two fruits in particular, and why this external factor did not impose a single name for the two fruits in the whole region, why was he forced to make three names (figs, chermos, and plus)? ?
If we try to study this table in the image, we will find the following:
All dialects have one name for the two fruits called in English (fig, figs), except for the Levantine dialect, but the name differs from one dialect to another.
(figs – carmos – plus)
There are three common dialects in the word associated with prickly fruit, and this word is a name for a people.
(Indian – Al-Nasarah – Turks)
– All dialects call the fruit, which is called gueve in English, with the same English name (guava), except for the Yemeni dialect, which calls it (olive).
All dialects have agreed to name the fruit called olive in English, but not all of them call it olive, and this word is found in the Holy Qur’an.
– All dialects have a mistake in one of the fruits mentioned in the Qur’an (figs), except for the Yemeni dialect, which also has a mistake in the fig fruit, it has a mistake in another fruit in the Qur’an, which is called (olive).
Is it possible to know the external factor from this data?
If we look at the names of the prickly fruit in the dialects, we will find that it is described by Indian, Christian, and Turkish… Question: Do these designations give us the origin of the tree, the time of its entry, and its relationship to the external factor?
I think yes
In Tunisia, the prickly fruit is called Indian, but in some areas of Yemen, large corn is called Hind or Hindi, and if someone from Tunisia goes to Yemen and asks him to buy an Indian, he will buy that prickly fruit, and if someone from Yemen goes to Tunisia and asks Buy from an Indian and he will buy you large corn.
An Indian name for large corn, because it is corn that entered Yemen during the period of the entry of the Turks, and as is known, that corn originates from America, which was called West Indies, so the name corn came from India (America), and this prickly fruit also came from America (India) and was planted in the region during the period of the entry of the Turks and Al-Nasarah (France and Britain), so it was attributed to the Turks, Al-Nasarah and India.
So it seems that the external factor that caused the confusion was the Western occupation, during which time they installed the Turks in ruling their colonies in the region.
But the logical question:
Is there a Western Turkish occupation that entered the region that deliberately made a mistake in reality to prevent people from realizing what the two fruits are, but what is the benefit?,
But why are the figs and olives mentioned in the Qur’an, which caused confusion in the region? Why did the confusion not occur in apples, pomegranates, oranges, or apricots? Is it to hide a place marked with figs and olives as a sign confirming something?
The most important point in this table remains… Why did a mistake occur in one fruit (figs) throughout the region, while Yemen had a mistake in the other fruit as well (olives)?
We asked this question to many people in Yemen: Why is guava called olive in Yemen, even though it is not olive?
Many said that the reason was that it is not grown in Yemen, so they called guava olives because they did not know olives
But this is not a convincing logical reason, because there are two fruits that are grown in Yemen and the residents of Yemen created a confusion between them with one name, and because there are fruits that are not grown in Yemen, but the residents of Yemen agree on naming them with the rest of the region, and there is no confusion.
There are also things that do not exist in Yemen, but the people of Yemen call them by their known original name.
Rather, the important question is: Why did the people of Yemen know one fruit in the Qur’an (the olive) and their tongue did not know the other fruit (the fig).
Why was it necessary for the name of one fruit to exist in reality (olive) on the tongues of the people of Yemen, while it was not necessary for the name of the other fruit to exist in reality (fig) on their tongue?
Here’s the puzzle
He follows
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