Where is the Qur’an in which the words of Allah were first written in the current script?

Where is the Qur’an in which the words of Allah were first written in the current script?

2020-08-18T09:35:00-08:00

Link to the article

Every Muslim must ask this question, which is the most important question any Muslim must ask.

There is no divine text without its original document in which it was written… The world is not loose or chaotic… People need a realistic result… The Qur’an demands the book from Muslims… and Al-Azhar and other religious institutions in the region, since its inception, have not searched for the first Qur’an, being busy studying the books of Al-Bukhari and Al-Tabari and the biography of Ibn Hisham.

Where is the Qur’an in which the words of Allah were first written in the current script?

Let’s give a summary of the story of this line.

The story of the current line says briefly… That the Qur’an was revealed in Mecca, then the first Qur’an was written in this script without punctuation… Then a process of development took place on it, due to the introduction of Islam by the Persians, who were not able to differentiate between letters that were similar in drawing, then the script was punctuated, then it developed into the placement of diacritics and It is the current drawing.

This is almost a summary of the story of the calligraphy that was associated with this Qur’an… But the logical question is: Where is the first Qur’an in which the Qur’an was written in the days of the Messenger, or during the era of Uthman, to whom the name of this Qur’an is attributed?!

Why is it called the Hijazi script?

Is it because the Qur’an was revealed in Mecca, and the first Qur’an was written in that region, and it is the script that reached the residents of the region? Is it because the scenario of the historical story imposes a logical link that his name be Hijazi?!

What I mean is: Did we call it the Hijazi script, or did the residents of Mecca call it the Hijazi, or did the residents of the region at that period call it the Hijazi?!

If the people of Mecca were the ones who gave him this name, then it is a historical fabrication and a lie.

Why ?!

Firstly …. Because the name Hijaz was not famous at that time, did this word (Hijaz) appear in the Holy Qur’an or in the biography books printed by the Ottoman printer?

no

Secondly…………the line cannot be attributed to geography, because this designation imposes that the name Hijaz is a political or cultural component, etc., and the Hijaz mountains extend to Yemen and the Levant…. Therefore, we call it the Yemeni or Levantine script, but Yemen has an ancient script different from this script.

Third… The affiliation of the script to geography assumes that society has been established in comparison with other geography, and logically, the rest of geography must have a written script, that is, there is the Najdi script, the Yemeni script, the Levantine script, and the Iraqi script…. But the script in Yemen is not called the Yemeni script, but rather the Musnad script

Fourthly… If this line was given this name by another, then it is illogical in the consciousness of that period because the other was giving the lines of the region names that were not attributed to geography… The Musnad script was not called the Yemeni script, and the hieroglyphic script was not called the script. The Egyptian. The cuneiform script was not called the Levantine or Iraqi script.

But this imposes a point… because Mecca is geographically surrounded on all sides and knows how to write: Yemen, Misr, Iraq, and the Levant.

So……..this name was given to this script at a later time, and its purpose, in my personal opinion, is to create an origin for this written script and for the script of the region.

But the very important question is: What did the Messenger and the Companions call this script with which they wrote this Qur’an that is in our hands?! ……. Because at that time, the inhabitants of Yemen used to call their written script the Musnad script, so what was the name that they had for this script?! So this script in which the Messenger wrote must have had its own name, known and common in that period, as the region surrounding Mecca It had special designations for calligraphy.

The story of Mecca that has reached us from near or far does not indicate the name that the Meccan community gave to this line… at all

But we will impose on our own

Arabic calligraphy, for example?!

We have not received any information from the story of Mecca found in the books of biography, hadith, and other books that speaks even a small reference to the name of this line, because not mentioning it is completely illogical, as if he wanted to say that this line is the line of all the inhabitants of the earth, and the line of all the inhabitants of the region. There is no need for a distinct name for it, because it is a single script… while the reality is that Mecca is a small spot and was surrounded on all sides by clear, prominent and standing script lines………. This forces them to give it a name to distinguish it from the rest of the fonts.

Boot line?

An illogical name, and I think that this is the reason that made them invent this name… which is the Jazm script, on the pretext that this script came out of the Musnad script through a process of cutting from it.

The logical question: Was it called by this name at the time or later?!

This name was invented to create a name for the font… but a long time later, so why try to come up with a name for it when it does not have its own initial name?!

Then what is the meaning of Jazm?!

He called it the cutting line and the matter was over. So why this difficulty in naming?

Or why is it not called Arabic calligraphy?! ..Is the topic difficult?!

I think yes, the topic is difficult, because if it is called Arabic calligraphy, it must be the origin of the first Arab calligraphy… While the reality is otherwise, there is Yemen, which is close to Mecca, and has an older and different script, and according to history, Yemen is the origin of the Arabs. From this point that we reached, the idea emerged that this line emerged from the Musnad line.

Now the important question: You have the current line and the Musnad line, and make a comparison between them. Does the current line seem to have departed from the Musnad line?!

There is no relationship or any logical link between this font and the Musnad font. Even if you perform any external operations on the Musnad font, cutting, merging, splitting, or rotating the symbols, it is not possible to produce from the operations any shape similar to the letters of this font.

I have reason and vision…even if prophetic hadiths or statements of scientific genius were attributed to scientists in the past, and it was said about them that they were among the founders of sociology, language, or grammar… And you say that this line came out of the Musnad line… He is either a donkey, a madman, or a lying person trying to convince me of this idea through the trick of attributing the speech to the Prophet or attributing the speech to an imaginary time so that for me it becomes a binding ancestral inheritance, and that the ancients have said this information and it is necessary. To listen to them and surrender to their logic…they were more knowledgeable and experienced.

So what is the origin of this line?!

■ It is said that the origin of the script is Syriac.

But the logical question is: Why did the people in Mecca not accept the Syriac script as it is?! Is it because Roman times told us that the Church of Rome came before Islam, so all the elements of Islam must have come out of the Church of Rome, the white man’s church… in a sophisticated way like Darwin’s theory?!

The closest place for the residents of Mecca is Yemen… very close and full of Musnad writings, and their trade goes to Yemen all the time… and the Meccan community can take the script from Yemen and write the Qur’an with it.

■ It is said that its origin is Aramaic script.

But the logical question is: Are there still people remaining today who are called Aramaeans and write in their first script so that we can compare and confirm that they actually emerged from the Aramaic script?

If you say that the current script is originally from the Musnad script… Perhaps it would be more logical than saying that the origin of the script is Aramaic, because Yemen contains many inscriptions in the Musnad script that are very clear as the sun, but who are these Arameans and where did they live? Do they have antiquities like the antiquities of Yemen, Misr, or Iraq so that we can be confident of the existence of a time period? Long lived by a people called Aramaeans who had their own writing?!

nothing

All the inscriptions that are said to be Aramaic are as numerous as the number of fingers on a hand, and are unclear and lacking in accuracy like the rest of the inscriptions in the region, and there is no care given to them, as if they are not authentic scripts, or as if they are like a quick, travel-friendly, and insatiable (sandwich). Three of the samples of these inscriptions contain a unique case and a strange coincidence, which is the presence of this Aramaic script next to the Greek script in three inscriptions.

funny

So what is the origin of this line?!

The important question: Was this script written before Islam?!

According to sources, 44,000 documents written before Islam speak in an ancient script similar to this script.

44000?! …… A very imaginative number. Perhaps the Greeks themselves or the entire Vatican Library do not contain such a volume of archaeological manuscripts.

Where are those documents?!

In addition to this information, there are ten stone inscriptions that talk about the beginnings of this script.

Western archaeological history has provided us with approximately ten inscriptions that speak of the beginnings of current Arabic calligraphy. But the funny thing is that the Rosetta Stone is repeated with us in an inscription in the Levant, and it was found written in three scripts: Arabic, Syriac, and Greek…… This inscription, written in three lines, is the clearest example of the current script, but what is strange is that this inscription only appeared in the Levant and did not appear in Mecca or Hijaz. Rather, the strangest thing is that this inscription is as old as the beginning of Islam.

I don’t know why the Greeks are following us everywhere in the region lol, and they place a stone inscription of three lines, including Greek, for us everywhere. Through these Greek stone inscriptions, the lines are deciphered, all the inscriptions are read, and the date that we received through the printer is confirmed. lol

Everywhere in the region you find an inscription consisting of three lines, including Greek.

This inscription is as old as the narrative of Islam… It is as if the writer of the inscription wanted to give us a time document confirming the history of Islam at the same age, or to tell us that the emergence of Islam began with the emergence of this script… so that we can be reassured.

I mean, I am surprised that very clear inscriptions of the current Arabic calligraphy do not appear when they are, for example, 500 BC or 700 BC.. I do not know why there must be extreme chronological accuracy in all the discovered inscriptions so that they match the Roman calendar (the white man’s calendar) and the calendar. Hijri.

These ten inscriptions pose an important and logical question to us:

If you search anywhere in Yemen, you will find countless antiquities that are not restricted to a specific number of inscriptions, and there are no restrictions on the number of inscriptions. So why is the origin of this script restricted to five inscriptions, like a sandwich… traveling, fast, and insatiable?! … Why with the number of fingers… Where is this origin that is not restricted by conditions and a specific number? Why is the origin not an endless number of inscriptions?! .

Something illogical.

If we count these discoveries, you will find that most of them were discovered in Saudi Arabia and the Levant.

Question: Why specifically these places and not appear elsewhere?!

Is it intended to say that the origin of the script appeared there in Saudi Arabia in order to give a written origin also to that region, just as a religious origin was given to it?

In Yemen, you will find artifacts written in hieroglyphic script, and note the very large distance separating Misr and Yemen, and yet you find artifacts in Yemen, so why have we not discovered any trace of such inscriptions outside those areas?

Ten inscriptions, without any care, and written in a cursive manner, do not constitute scientific evidence to say that these inscriptions are the first beginnings or the first origin of the calligraphy.

Why ?!

Compare the Musnad script and the hieroglyphics… You will find, logically and scientifically, that the hieroglyph is the first origin of the Musnad script, but look at the size of the inscriptions in Misr, they are countless, and look at the size of the inscriptions in Yemen, they are countless and countless, and any sane person He will say that there are people in Misr who wrote in hieroglyphs over a very long life, and that there are people in Yemen who wrote in Musnad over a very long life.

Where and how long is this age until ten separate and unclear inscriptions and travel work have emerged from it, and where is this society that lived for a time writing in these scripts?!

Ten inscriptions are not considered scientifically or logically by any sane person or researcher as real evidence. Rather, in the eyes of any researcher, they are considered to be highly suspicious of the fact that someone created inscriptions for a purpose in the soul of Yaacoub.

Rather, notice the time difference between the inscription lines. You will find that the difference is a very small time, but there is a qualitative shift in the calligraphy, which does not indicate or express at all that this shift is the result of 40 years, requiring a longer period.

According to the history that was presented to us, near the emergence of Islam in Mecca, the people of Yemen were writing in the Musnad script on stone, and we have the Ibrahim inscription written on the rock, and to this day no paper books have reached us in the Musnad script… So why only forty years have passed since the Ibraha inscription? Let us find the narrative of Islam talking to us about a society in Mecca that writes on paper, sends paper letters, and writes on paper and leather?!

Is it possible that Yemen is an area of ancient and deep urban stability, and in communication with the outside world, as evidenced by the fact that Yemen’s Musnad inscriptions were cut from the hieroglyphic script in Misr? Is it reasonable that Yemen at that time was backward and they were the people of writing and had never written on paper, for example? The community of Mecca, which has an area of 5 kilometers, in that narrow and small place?!

There is a time discrepancy here.

But the strange thing is that Yemen was written in the Musnad script at that time, and any script that emerges from the Musnad script requires a very, very long time, until a change in form occurs in it. This is assuming that some say that the current script emerged from the Musnad script is correct.

—————————–

So how did the Prophet write the Qur’an and how did Uthman write the Qur’an?

Or what is the original script? If the novel said that the script was an invention of the Messenger and Mecca, it would be very logical, as it is an invention and its true origin is Mecca.

So why did they invent this script and not take the Yemeni script, unless Mecca is this very narrow place? You believe politically and culturally that it does not belong to Yemen… and it is different from Yemen… and they are superior to importing a script from Yemen… and you believe that if they imported a Syriac script… It would be better than importing a line from Yemen.

According to history, the first Mushaf was the Uthman Mushaf. It was compiled by Uthman and called the Uthmani Mushaf. The Qur’an was not recited at that time.

But there is information in the sources that talks about finding a dotted Qur’an from the first century AH.

But there is an important note.

According to history, the calligraphy went through four stages, the first undotted stage, then the dotted stage (the signs of dhamma, kasra, and fatha) carried out by Abu Al-Aswad al-Du’ali, then the dotting of the letters by order of the Umayyad dynasty, then changing the dots of (damma, kasra, and dhamma) to different signs ( Italics, small waw, etc.) via Al-Farahidi.

This development took place over a period of approximately 250 years

The logical question: Is it possible that this development took place over the course of 250 years, while the inscriptions presented to us by the West are separated by a very long life and there is no development that has occurred to reach this stage that Al-Farahidi has reached, for example…at least the dotting of the letters.

Also, is it possible that a person like Abu Al-Aswad, who developed calligraphy, instead of removing the confusion between similar letters, went to a far away place and put dots as vowels?!

Is he a donkey or a fool and a crazy person?!

Then who is this character who imposed his logic on a large nation, for example?

The first job that any donkey or crazy person does is to remove the confusion between similar letters. Who is this dummy, for example?!

secondly …. What is the reason for putting dots in the first place? Why did it not occur to them to invent other letters?!

Is it because the line is suspended?!

If the calligraphy had been arbitrary, they would not have made this modification to the script, and this negates the fact that it was arbitrary in their mind at that time, because they were supposed to adhere to the drawing of the Messenger as it is… Without modifying the Book of Allah.

The fact that the script was initially without dots, then dotted to remove confusion in reading after the Persians converted to Islam, denies the fact that this script is of Persian origin, because the non-Arabs can read it and there is no need for dots.

What is the origin of the calligraphy then?!

The Islamic novel that presented the Muslim tried to create evolutionary stages for the calligraphy, in order to create an initial origin for the calligraphy, a historical depth, and a historical logical process of consolidation to establish this script, just as archaeologists tried to create a historical origin for the calligraphy through ten inscriptions to give this script a historical dimension and initial origins. He came out of it.

Because the logical question that was not asked in this history that was presented to the Muslim and the Arab: What is the true origin of the drawing of letters, what is the idea that created the written letter?!

To draw a calligraphy, and then modify the letters in documents and inscriptions, is not considered a real factual history about the origin of the calligraphy at all.

To draw a line, and then make inscriptions that include modifications to the line, to express the evolutionary stages of the line, is not considered realistic or natural historical or chronological logic at all.

That we discover a calligraphy as a first stage, and we cannot find any logical relationship within the letters of the calligraphy, and then after a while we discover inscriptions similar to the calligraphy, does not mean at all that time and reality produced those inscriptions and those lines.

Also, the story that was presented to the Muslim about the development of the calligraphy is false and fabricated, because this development began with a non-dotted line, and the non-dotted line forces us to ask a logical, respectful and sane question: On what basis were the letters drawn in this way, without dots, and why was there a great deficit? There is a very significant disability in writing letters that are not similar and there are differences between them.

Was it a stupid society?!

C H F E G R Z D D D B T Th R Z T Z

Imagine it without dots

Where did the society of Mecca come from… this ass and foolish society to write in this stupid way, and to write letters that are similar in drawing and there is no difference, but different in pronunciation?!

The Meccan community is surrounded by a very respectable environment. They have a wonderful and respectable writing culture and a great historical asset, and they are supposed to benefit from them, especially since the story of the Ottomans made the people of Mecca travel to the Levant and Yemen and look at their writings.

So the story that the calligraphy began without punctuation is a lie… to create a primitive origin for the calligraphy only in the Muslim’s consciousness, and does not make him raise a question about the first origin of this calligraphy.

The first real appearance of this script……..……a full back, complete with this form, dotted and marked with diacritics, etc., and it reached the Muslim for the first time in this form and this dotting.

Why ?!

The script must have a primitive origin, and there must be a logical external link between its letters, not an internal one.

And if we do not find this origin and external logical link, and we find an initial origin and logical link inside the line, then it is an initial invented line, meaning that the line is originally the first, the beginning, and the end, and there is no beginning, origin, or stages of development before it.

Let’s make a comparison between this line and the datum line

You will find that the Musnad script, each symbol is different from the other, and is not similar, and it has an origin found in Egyptian writing, and within its symbols there is an external link.

As for the current line

There are similar symbols inside it…. Only a point differentiates between a symbol and a symbol, and the criterion of difference is the point, and there is no logical external link between its symbols, but rather there is a logical link within it?!

Yes, there is an internal link between its symbols… It is the audio output

Whoever invented this calligraphy invented it on the basis of the sound output and the position of the tongue in the mouth……..See how Al-Aswad Al-Daali talks about the sound and he tells everyone about the reasons for developing the calligraphy.

This means that if you notice, for example, that there is no logical connection between the letter (d) and the letter (dha) in the way it is drawn in the Musnad script, assuming that the West’s translations of the Musnad inscriptions are correct… But in the current script, you will find that the letter (d) is similar to the letter (dha) and differs from it by only a point. And when you ask yourself why the two letters are drawn in such a close manner, you will find the answer in your tongue when pronouncing the two letters. The tongue is in a very close position.

So whoever created this script created it on the basis of the position of the tongue in the mouth and the sound output, and it is impossible for this mind that thought to invent this script to write the letter (d) and write the letter (dha) without a dot. That is, the inventor will logically invent two similar drawings for the two letters, but something else must be distinguished between them… And it is the point.

This completely denies… The story is that the current calligraphy had its beginning without punctuation, meaning that the first beginning of this calligraphy was in the same current form, completely ready… Dottedly.

Also, our discovery that the basis on which the letters of this script were drawn is the phonetic output, and the link between similar letters is the position of the tongue, makes us conclude that this script is very modern and not ancient, and that the inscriptions in which the beginnings of this script appear are fake and forged in order to create a very ancient original. for him …. Why ?!

Because this basis and link… is a very modern logic… Because the basis on which the ancients drew the letters of ancient writings did not depend on this basis and connection…and the writing symbols were related to the shape of things only.

I mean, for example… the ancients used to draw the letter (N) in the same shape as something around it that started with the sound (N)… like the shape of (Nun Al-Ain)… That is, the letter (N) would be drawn in this shape (○).

permission …. Who is the first inventor of this line?!

The inventor of this font must be a modern person, not an ancient one.

Who is he?!

The Ottomans, not the Prophet, not Othman, and not the Arabs.

If you look at the sources… You will find that most of the Arabic calligraphy was made by Ottoman calligraphers, and you will find that the first drawing of the Qur’an in this calligraphy (naskh) was drawn up by a Turk named Othman.

We talked previously…that this calligraphy is very recent and not old.

Therefore… the Ottomans or the Ottoman calligrapher, any one of them, are behind this script that they imposed on the region, after they decided to write the Qur’an in this script, and because the Qur’an was written in this script, this script later became obligatory for the Muslim and the Arab to write in it. .

This fact was well known to our ancestors, and they used to call it the Ottoman Qur’an, named after the Ottomans. However, this fact must not remain in memory or be passed on from generation to generation…it must be completely erased.

Why ?

Because the continuation of this fact will destroy the game that must be played in the region… and the continuation of this fact means that the Qur’an was originally written in a different script other than this script.

So …. The Muslim and the Arab must realize that this is the first pause line of the Qur’an.

What is the solution ?

I believe that implementing this task on the collective memory of societies requires conducting an experiment on memory.

The nation is a living entity, but it is abstract, and it does not have a physical brain, but a memory of it can be created by writing its history in books.

now

When I change the font of the Qur’an and create a new font, and spread it in society, then society will be aware that it is an Ottoman invention, and that the Ottomans collected all of the Qur’an inside a paper Qur’an and gave it to them in a script of their own invention… Therefore, I want to do something that makes this society completely forget this fact and not pass it on, and the following must be done:

We observe society for one generation or 40 years.

Then we create a historical novel for him, which we write in books so that we make it his memory and create an ancient chronological age for him… so that it is recorded in the ancient memory of society, and the importance of making its time ancient so that it becomes well engraved, then we write in history the story of a person whose name is similar to the name of the Ottoman, and it will be His name is Othman, and he collected the Qur’an… Then we begin to publish it to the community, and make the community consider it its history… until a new generation is formed that believes in this new narrative.

Why ?

Until the old name of Othman and the new name of Othman are erased from reality and consciousness. Until the old name of Othman is erased, the new name of Othman is from the collective memory. There is a connection and overlap between the virtual ancient time and the real modern time.

now

If information or any continuous indication appears in society about the previous fact that the Qur’an was written and compiled by the modern Uthmani, due to the remains of inheritance and transmission in society, the new generation will reject it and will only accept the story stored in the memory of society that we created for it (the books), because it is It carries a time older than the immediate, connected reality.

There will be constant confusion in society……. There will be an overlap between the names, between the story of the ancient Uthman and the story of the modern Uthmani, between the plural of the old Uthman and the plural of the modern Uthmani… There will be a union between the two times, between the recent time of the Uthman (reality) and the old hypothetical time present in memory of the old Uthman (the books).

And the final result… Society will reject the time of the immediate reality and this truth, and will find a logical explanation for this confusion that society has begun to confuse the new Ottoman with the old Osman due to the similarity of the names… and will only accept the image in the old memory that we created for him.

And with time and generation after generation…the realistic truth will disappear and fade away, and society will stop transmitting and passing on this truth, in favor of the image in the old memory, which will be inherited and passed on generation after generation…because it is a memory that exists in a material that cannot be destroyed or damaged. It ends, it is constantly printed, unlike a person whose memory ends with his death.

Society (the Ottoman Caliphate) will reject the truth and reality that shaped this Qur’an that was present in people’s hearts, and the Qur’an will be constantly and continuously called (Caliph Othman).

This process…………required writing books that established a historical origin for this script, and it also required embodying the illusion with material objects, by making travel inscriptions in the region, and making it the first historical origin of the script.

And in order to understand this time game on memory… See how the Ottomans claim that they still preserve to this day the first Qur’an written by Caliph Othman (according to their claim)… and it is located in the Istanbul Museum.

Funny… All the documents that are 1,400 years old are in the museums of the Ottomans, and they are the basis of the calamity, absurdity and corruption that befell us… because they are fake documents to embody the fictitious history they wrote for Muslims and Arabs.

The current script is a purely Ottoman invention, and the current Qur’an is called the Ottoman Qur’an, because the current script in which I am writing now, which is the same script as the Qur’an, is originally a purely Turkish Ottoman invention.

Realizing this fact is very important for Muslims and Arabs, so that they can understand the game and the true meaning of the Quranic verse:

{That is the Book about which there is no doubt – a guidance for the righteous}

That book… That is, the original, disjointed (detailed) writing in which the Qur’an was written before this (connected) script…. Before the Ottomans wrote the Qur’an in this script and imposed it on Muslims and Arabs.

{A Book whose verses are explained in detail by our readers in Arabic for a people who know}

The true purpose that the Qur’an wants to convey to you in the phrase (that book about which there is no doubt)… is the original, apocalyptic writing with which the Qur’an was written… so that the Muslim obtains his original document in which his true memory is located and this nation reaches its original memory…. Allah wants to get the Muslims out of the fake memory written by the occupier with this new script that he invented and imposed on the Muslims and printed for the people through his printer and handwriting all this fake history.

He wants the Muslim to emerge from darkness into light.

That is the book about which there is no doubt… It is the first apocalyptic script whose verses are detailed and which the Qur’an was written with… And this book is the same book that was given to Musa… and its story with Pharaoh is found in the Holy Qur’an, and the story of Musa and Pharaoh is found in the Qur’an. True news, and this is the story that must reach the Muslim so that he can obtain his first document.

And this news about the book…..and it is the real reason that led to the emergence of Judaism in the land, and they carry a book that resembles the Qur’an in a foreign language and claims that it appeared in the land before Islam, because when the people of Pharaoh reached them the book of Musa and learned its contents, they then forged the book. Musa (the script) in which the Qur’an was written… They wrote a book similar to the stories of the Qur’an in a new language, and they made it a book for a new religion, and they settled it in the region and wrote an ancient history for it in the land to create an ancient origin for it.

A Book whose verses are detailed. Our reciters are Arabic for a people who know. The tongue of the one to whom they refer is foreign, and this is a clear Arabic tongue. And among them is a party who twist their tongues with the Book so that you think it is from the Book, but it is not from the Book. And they say, “It is from Allah,” but it is not from Allah, and they tell a lie about Allah while they know.

And the Muslim today is inside this game that he does not understand…………because he did not ask this fundamental question, and he has not yet understood the importance of this fundamental question and that it is the fundamental question in the Qur’an for you:

Where is the first Qur’an in which the Messenger wrote the Qur’an?!

This article is a brief answer to this fundamental question

اترك تعليق